PHYSICS HELP

https://imgur.com/a/EuC8Pgf

please help for second one
edit: solved, thanks to those who helped

it is greater than 0 but less than 1

idk sorry

the greater the mass the greater the attraction

Isn't this Albert Einstein's work?

5.09

E= mc^2

6.5936003002360165145887335779355 (approx. 6.59)

just do the force tables with the correct frame of reference and solve. Force of friction = mew*Fn

Newton's 2nd Law. Fnet = ma, in this case you are doing it in the x axis (the x-axis is slanted parallel to the ramp to make calculations easy, and the y-axis is perpendicular to it)

In the x-direction you have 3 forces. The applied force is pushing the object up the ramp (lets make it positive), and therefore the force of friction is in the opposite direction of your applied force (negative). The 3rd force is the x vector/component of gravity, Fgsinθ, also in the negative direction down the ramp.

The applied force is given at 38N, the x component of gravity is mgsinθ, and the force of kinetic friction is μFN. μ is given as 0.11, and FN (normal force) is equal to the downward force of gravity in the y direction (mgcosθ) since the object is not accelerating in the y-direction. Set that equal to ma (m is given and a is the variable to solve for). So you should have F(applied)-F(friction)-F(x component gravity) = m*a.

I got |3.08 m/s^2| but i didn't check the math so i could be wrong.

EDIT: your steps should look very similar to how you solved your first problem, that originally being F(applied)-F(x component gravity)=m*a. Now you have an extra force of kinetic friction that acts against the applied force on the surface of the ramp, so add that (negative) to the left side of the equation and resolve.

Do Fnet and then isolate for acceleration

around 6

Pretty straightforward. Break down the downward gravitational force (mg) into two components, one along the incline mgsin(theta) and one perpendicular to it mgcos(theta).

Then you can calculate the frictional force (always constant) from the normal force perpendicular to the plane. n * mgcos(theta).

Now your apparent force should look like F = 28 - mgsin(theta) - n*mgcos(theta)

from this force, you can calculate the acceleration since you know the mass.

Your daddy cryoderrekzanderenjoyer has been banned. You actually have to do the work yourself now unfortunately.

|F - umgscos21 - mgsin21| /M
Just make free body diagram and force analysis considering the incline as x axis and making a line perpendicular for y axis and u is coeff of friction

I'm glad I never have to do any physics related shit ever again, it's so frustrating

what physics is this